JFS Mission Qualification (MQF) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What fire support coordination measure defines a line beyond which fires may be fired at any time within establishing HQ without additional coordination, but airspace coordination remains required?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• Which operation involves moving through another force's combat positions to reach a new position while maintaining contact with the enemy?
• Which fuze can be added to 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds to increase precision?
• Which term refers to the immediate indirect and joint fires used to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect-fire weapons after acquisition?
• If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give Attitude
• How would an observer maintain positive control of the SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during an engagement?
• _____ is a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets or a prolonged effort over time covering many targets.
• In the movement to contact scenario, what is the first action you should take?
• Which two terms describe laser-target interactions mentioned in the material?
• Fill in the circular error, in feet, for the 0-6 m category.
• A fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement, and short of the line, all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement.
• Which term provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect-fire weapons once acquired?
• What term describes the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time?
• Which items are included in SALTR during BDA reporting for a CAS engagement?
• What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and the duration is associated with the call for fire?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission?
• Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?
• Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force's request for assistance?
• If you record a deviation of 15 mils to the left, which notation would be correct?
• Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
• What term describes a condition where an obstruction is between the laser and the desired target?
• A three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires. A _____ facilitates the expeditious air-to-surface lethal attack of targets.
• Which of the following describes a relationship where the general support is provided to the supported force as a whole?
• Who is the principal fire support advisor to the commander at the company level?
• Which term describes a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment?
• Which term is the act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention?
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• Which term denotes a collection of targets of similar nature planned for sequential attack?
• The method of engagement consists of:
• What is the nomenclature for both MLRS platforms?
• Which term best describes concentrating fire to deliver a synchronized effect across space and time on targets?
• True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
• Which term describes a single target planned to be engaged when detected or located?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the observer base the determination for the method of fire on?
• Which fixed-wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• In the SLOCTOP framework, what does the P component stand for?
• What is the full nomenclature and name of the LLDR?
• Restrictive fire support coordination measures provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants.
• In a 2MBCT Infantry Battalion, what is the MTOE slant for the M252 and M120 systems?
• During an impact registration, when the 50-meter range bracket has been established, how many rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting?
• Which statement about the D3A process is true?
• If conditions preclude briefing full BDA, at a minimum what do you pass?
• True or False: During O - Observation, all team members are proficient in recognizing friendly or adversary forces?
• In HOB spottings, what does GRAZE indicate?
• During mortar registration what tube conducts the registration?
• Which of the following is a method of control that involves continuous illumination?
• Which concept refers to a number of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
• Which method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?
• Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit?
• Which control type requires the JTAC/FAC(A) to visually acquire both the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• In the 9-Line CAS Brief, which line identifies FRIENDLIES?
• A _____ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all fires for the designated firing unit or element.
• In mortar registrations, after a 100-meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within 50 meters of the target, how many rounds over and short are required?
• In SLOCTOP, which action helps quickly detect enemy forces?
• Which term refers to a target that has precedence and is engaged ahead of other fires for the designated unit?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy's timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion?
• In Type 3 control, who sets the parameters that constrain engagement?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• In Type 3 control, which clearance indicates attack permission within prescribed parameters?
• What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• During offensive fires, which two actions are identified as SOSRA responsibilities?
• For the TLE category 0-6 m, the corresponding range in feet is?
• Which statement about Time on Target and Time to Target is correct?
• Which type of smoke is used to create a curtain between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces?
• True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which fixed-wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• What is a list of objects or entities protected from the effects of military operations under international law and ROE?
• What are the 15 subsequent corrections in sequence (in order)?
• Which term describes a target identified too late for deliberate targeting and processed via dynamic targeting?
• A Planned Target is a target known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned, using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support the commander's objectives.
• Which fixed-wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• What are the two primary missions of the Tactical Air Control Party (TACP)?
• Which term describes the measurement of a feature's location to determine latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• What does MIXED AIR mean in HOB spottings?
• What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?
• Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?
• Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?
• What is the detailed, logical sequence of targets and fire support events to find and engage targets to support the commander's objectives?
• Which type of smoke is used to obscure threat observers and to minimize their vision?
• Vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how many meters?
• Which option correctly states the maximum range of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• What brevity term means acquisition of laser designation, or is the platform laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
• If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?
• Which item is not part of the method of engagement?
• What term is used when the laser beam is large enough to hit the desired target and an object behind the target?
• Which method can be used to deconflict aircraft and surface fires by separating engagement geometry laterally?
• Which line in the 9-Line CAS Brief contains the TARGET LOCATION?
• Which statement best defines a target?
• What is a list of valid military targets that could be on the joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL) that have restrictions placed upon their engagement by the JFC or directed by higher authorities?
• _____ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.
• Which term describes the forward movement through another unit's position during movement toward the enemy?
• During the time portion of the precision registration, when two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?
• In HOB spottings, what does AIR indicate?
• Which defensive operation involves organized movement away from the enemy to preserve resources or reposition?
• What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?
• Which measure is a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires, and is designed to facilitate expeditious air-to-surface attack?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
• Which method of attack requires that the JTAC/FAC(A)'s intended target or mark is tallied/contact/captured by the aircrew?
• What does ASOC stand for?
• True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.
• What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
• Which control type would you use to authorize multiple attacks within a single engagement under restrictions?
• What is the range correction granularity used in mortar registrations?
• The Tactical Air Control Party (TACP) is an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units.
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• Which fixed-wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• A forward passage of lines occurs when a unit passes through another unit's positions while moving toward the enemy.
• A Joint Fires Observer is a certified and qualified Service member who requests, controls, and adjusts surface-to-surface fires; provides targeting information in support of close air support; and performs terminal guidance operations.
• When converting degrees to mils, you must multiply the number of degrees by what factor to determine mils?
• A _____ is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.
• In the 9-Line CAS Brief, which line specifies the DISTANCE to the target?
• Which method uses time to deconflict air and surface fires?
• Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using what?
• Who oversees the FIST and is the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?
• What is the purpose of the No-Strike List?
• A specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with establishing HQ.
• What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?
• What is the name of the area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability?
• What brevity term means sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• Which option best matches the phrase of the D3A process?
• Which term describes a line beyond which conventional surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of establishing HQ without additional coordination but requires airspace coordination?
• Army _____ operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by protecting Army aviation assets near the forward line of own troops (FLOT) or during cross-FLOT operations. _____ also includes the protection of Air Force aircraft (such as CAS aircraft) supporting the ground commander's operation.
• True / False: A spotting of "LINE" is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
• What can JTACs and FAC(A)s use to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations?
• Who translates the commander's fire support guidance into specific fire support tasks?
• What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
• In a 2MBCT Infantry BN what is the MTOE slant for the M252 and M120 systems?
• What term describes permissive fire support coordination measures that facilitate the attack of targets; fires must be cleared with terrain owners and other airspace users?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as 'At My Command' or 'By Round, At My Command'?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding hand measurements of angular deviation?
• In the D3A process, what is the first step?
• Which platform has a maximum range of 22500 meters?
• Which area imposes specific restrictions on fires, and exceeding those restrictions requires coordination with the establishing HQ?
• Which component included in the method of engagement?
• What is the max range for JETS and LLDR?
• Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision?
• What bracket length is split after bringing the rounds onto the observer-target line during an impact registration?
• In impact registration, deviation is measured to what precision?
• A Scheduled Target is a target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
• When will the JTAC/FAC(A) state the method of attack?
• If you spot a round target or range correct during a registration, what does that round provide a spotting as?
• What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated?
• Who is responsible for integrating fire support with the scheme of maneuver and providing the commander's intent and guidance for fire support?
• Which term describes the specialized, regionally focused Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component and is co-located with the joint or combined AOC?
• In SLOCTOP, which practice ensures timely sharing of information about targets?
• What is NOT a method for responsive fires?
• For planning purposes, final protective fires are normally within how many meters from friendly positions?
• Which two items in the 15 corrections explicitly address the projectile and its fuze?
• A _____ is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.
• Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by _____ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
• A _____ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
• Direct Support is defined as a relationship in which a force supports a specific unit and answers directly to that unit.
• What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
• Which method of control would an observer use to specify the time, in minutes and seconds post hack statement, rounds impact on the target?
• Vertical shift difference must be greater than or equal to how many meters to be included in the target location data?
• What task/effect is when a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged?
• When conducting an area defense what must you tie your fires with?
• Which form is used to document the Target List Worksheet?
• Which of the following lists the six elements of the call for fire?
• Which offensive operation is typically used after a successful attack to disorganize the enemy in depth and create favorable conditions for follow-on operations?
• Which unit is used to express attitude in calls for fire?
• What term describes an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop favorable conditions for offensive or stability operations?
• Which term describes the measurement process used to determine absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• Which control type allows the JTAC/FAC(A) to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement, subject to specific restrictions?
• Which term describes disrupting enemy formation or tempo through coordinated fires, terrain, and obstacles?
• True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.
• What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
• In the 9-Line CAS Brief, which line conveys the HEADING and OFFSET to the target?
• Which statement is true regarding a quick smoke mission's call for fire data?
• Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?
• Which term describes the sequence that links targets with fire support events?
• You're an observer on the hill and you identify an enemy approximately 500 meters from your position. You announce DANGER CLOSE in your method of engagement. While adjusting your rounds, which adjustment technique is best suited for your situation?
• Which fuze increases precision for 155mm rounds such as M795 HE and M549A1 HERA?
• What task/effect is to render a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• Which instruction to send the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than _____ from the previously announced direction?
• The role of the Field Artillery is to _____ the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire and to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.
• In mortar registration, after the 100-meter bracket has been split and the last round is within 50 meters of the target, what action does the observer take?
• In the sequence of the 15 corrections, which item follows TARGET DESCRIPTION?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, how is the sheaf adjusted?
• During mortar registration, which factor is used to determine the method of fire when adjusting the sheaf?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?
• What term is used by a JTAC/FAC(A) during Type 3 control granting weapons release clearance to attack a target or targets within the parameters prescribed by the JTAC/FAC(A)?
• During a CFF, you receive a Splash call for AA1020. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact, you neither see nor hear the round impact. What spotting would you record?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?
• What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• What is the last word in the SOSRA acronym?
• Which line in the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request contains the REMARKS field?
• Which term refers to a brief bombardment of selected targets or a broad effort over time targeting many sites to prep for a main operation?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
• Which of the following is NOT a method of target location?
• In SLOCTOP, what does the O represent?
• Which element provides terminal attack control of CAS aircraft?
• For the TLE category 31-91 m, the corresponding range in feet is?
• Which deviation spotting describes a round that impacts on the observer-target line as seen by the observer?
• What term is used by a JTAC/FAC(A) during Type 1 and 2 control when granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target?
• What are the three deviation spottings?
• What is a Target of Opportunity?
• What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?
• During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke, adjust HE until which bracket is split?
• Which range spotting indicates that the range to the target is correct with respect to the adjusting point?
• A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
• True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
• Which Army element functions as the senior Army commander's liaison with the air component and is co-located with the joint or combined AOC?
• Which equipment should be used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?
• Which term describes a tactical approach where a force under pressure trades space for time to slow the enemy's momentum and inflict damage without decisive engagement?
• What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• What is the objective of an impact registration?
• During an impact registration, the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before what action?
• Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?
• Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?
• Name three capabilities (waveform) of the AN/PRC 158?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?
• What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?
• What is a type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
• Which illumination pattern provides the most uniform illumination with virtually no shadows?
• The observer must describe the target in enough detail that the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should contain the following:
• What is the max rate of fires for the M224, M252, and M120 according to the JFIRE?
• How many elements are in the call for fire?
• Which statement correctly describes the components of the warning order?
• In the D3A process, which step immediately precedes Deliver?
• _____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.
• Which term describes a fire support arrangement where the supported force is provided with fire support as a whole and not to any subdivision?
• Which method of control indicates ceasing loading rounds?
• Which option is NOT part of the SOSRA acronym?
• Which capability is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (close combat attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces?
• Which term describes a target known to exist in the operational environment, upon which deliberate targeting actions are planned?
• Which element is included in the target description if the target is significant in size or shape?
• Which term denotes a boundary that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas?
• Which method uses altitude to deconflict air and surface fires?
• If "danger close" has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
• Which statement is NOT a part of the method of engagement?
• What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
• Which support relationship is support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any subdivision thereof?
• Which control type is used when the JTAC cannot visually acquire the attacking aircraft at the moment of weapons release or cannot visually acquire the target?
• In a movement to contact, with POF and the unit under small arms fire, what are the two actions you should take?
• What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?
• Within the SLOCTOP observation framework, what is the number one priority for the team?
• What are the REDs for the M777A2 and M119A2 standing at 2/3 distance?
• SOSRA stands for which of the following sequences?
• What does JIPTL stand for in target planning?
• Which method of control involves coordinated illumination?
• Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line. Which of the following could serve as that base line?
• Which DA form is used for the Target List Worksheet?
• If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?
• An observer must be able to self-locate to within how many meters normally, and within how many meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids?
• What is the HOB correction when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted?
• Azimuth can be measured from which north references?
• Which munition is available to use with the 120mm mortar to minimize collateral damage and reduce the number of rounds required to achieve the target effects?
• What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?
• Which mortar has a maximum range of 5800 meters?
• Which term describes the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems before they engage friendly forces?
• Which method of control would an observer use to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• For the TLE category 16-30 m, the corresponding range in feet is?
• Which term describes a target that has fires scheduled for prosecution at a specified time?
• What is the definition of a Joint Fires Observer (JFO)?
• In the sequence of the 15 subsequent corrections, SPLASH is which item in the sequence?
• In the 9-Line CAS Brief, which line specifies the MARK TYPE AND TERMINAL GUIDANCE?
• Which offensive operation is used to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the main goal of destroying it?
• Which information must accompany target length if provided?
• Why does SLOCTOP recommend selecting the highest terrain when observing for enemy forces?
• In a polar plot mission, the FDC needs to know more than target location.
• During the time portion of the precision registration, when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted, what is the HOB correction?
• True / False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact.
• Which offensive operation is a decisive strike aimed at destroying enemy forces and seizing terrain?
• The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve accurate _____ on a target.
• Which term is used to render enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?
• D3A stands for which four words in order?
• What is the name of the interior angle at the target formed by the observer-target line and the gun-target line?
• What term describes air action by aircraft against hostile targets in close proximity to friendly forces, requiring detailed integration with those forces?
• What are the REDs for the M224, M252, and M120 standing at 2/3 distance?
• Which criterion is used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment tied to attaining an end state or objective?
• Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target?
• Which term describes air action against hostile targets in close proximity to friendly forces requiring detailed integration with those forces?
• Which of the following is a method of control from ATP 3-09.30?
• What term describes a boundary established between converging, friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing?
• A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
• True or False: JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just 'readback correct' or 'good readback'.
• What brevity term means sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• What does MIXED GRAZE mean in HOB spottings?
• Which fire support coordination measure requires fires to be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement for beyond the line, and with the establishing commander for fires short of the line?
• What term describes an area designated and numbered for future firing?
• Which CAS method uses coordinates rather than a specific target to guide the attack?
• During a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1025. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact, you aren't able to visually acquire the impact, but you hear it but you're unable to make out if it's over or short. What spotting would you record?
• During the impact portion of a registration, you spot a round that impacts on the registration point. What range spotting would that be?
• What is the acronym for the authority that controls the maneuver of attacking aircraft and grants weapons release clearance?
• Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities?
• Which method can be used to deconflict aircraft and surface fires by changing engagement geometry laterally?
• Which control type is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) cannot visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or cannot visually acquire the target?
• Which of the following is a valid method of fire support control from the 14 listed methods, used to initiate fire?
• A _____ is a planned target designated for fires that is engaged when detected or located using dynamic targeting.
• What is the additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for mortars during a registration?
• As an observer on the hill, you spot a round to the right of the observer-target line. Using your binoculars you measure the angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right. How would you record your spotting of the round?